Question Bank -

1. Which of the following types of media scheduling is suitable for a Desert coolers?
A) Study pulse B) Seasonal pulse
C) Period pulse D) Erratic pulse
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) Seasonal pulse
2. In E-commerce C2B means
A) Consumer-to-Business
B) Consumer-to-Business man
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) Consumer-to-Business
3. The 'world load' approach was designed by
A) W J Talley B) Mark Taylor
C) Adam Smith D) Robinson
E) None of these
 
4. An intelligent salesman views objections
A) positively B) negatively
C) frustrated D) encouraging
E) None of these
 
5. A theory states that no matter how efficiently goods / services are produced, if they cannot be delivered to the customer in the quickest possible time it is vain. This theory is the called
A) Quickest the best B) Instant service
C) Service on time D) Timely effort
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) Instant service
6. The basic advantage of price discounts offer include
A) flexibility B) convenience of implementation C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
C) Both (A) and (B)
7. In advertising for _____ is not allowed on T.V.
A) Liquor B) Cigarettes
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) and (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
C) Both (A) and (B)
8. Which among the following media has highest frequency?
A) T.V B) Newspaper C) Direct mail
D) Magazines E) None of these
 
9. In declininig stage of a product life cycle advertising should be
A) Defensive B) Persuasive
C) Informative D) Surrogative
E) None of these
 
10. Value-added resellers are those persons who ____
A) buy the basic product and add value to it and then resell it to final customers
B) buy the basic product and sell it with higher profit
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) buy the basic product and add value to it and then resell it to final customers
11. In dual pricing, fixed price concept applies only to a part of the output and the remaining output is allowed to be sold at prices determined by
A) market forces B) government
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) market forces
12. Which among the following is an example of deal use package?
A) Drinking glasses B) Match box
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) Drinking glasses
13. No. of competitors are maximum in the stage of ______ in the life cycle of a product
A) Introductory B) Growth
C) Maturity D) Declining E) None of these
 
14. The goods purchased by consumer on a regular basis are known as
A) Staple goods B) Impulse goods
C) Emergency goods D) Both (A) and (B)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) Staple goods
15. F.O.B. pricing is a policy under which
A) buyers pay the freight charges
B) buyers pay the factory charges
C) retailer pay the freight charges
D) Both (A) and (B)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) buyers pay the freight charges
16. Which among the following is a fundamental right of consumer?
A) Right to safety B) Right to be informed C) Right to choose
D) All the above E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
D) All the above
17. 'Early adopters' are the people
A) who are opinion leaders
B) who are willing to try new ideas
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) and (B)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
C) Both (A) and (B)
18. Capital goods are the goods which are
A) consumed directly B) durable goods
C) used for further production
D) Both (A) and (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
C) used for further production
19. Thailand Tourism positions as holding a convention in Thailand is "smooth as six where sky is limit", this is known as
A) Position with respect to product class
B) Position against competition
C) Position by endorsement
D) Both (A) and (B)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) Position with respect to product class
20. A situation where demand for a product exceeds the supply
A) Synchronous marketing B) Demarketing
C) Remarketing D) Regionals marketing
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) Demarketing
21. Research and development work consists of
A) scientific and engineering efforts to develop new products
B) to improve established products
C) adjusting product features to fit customer's wants
D) All of the above
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
D) All of the above
22. The main reason for establishing sales territories is to
A) secure optimum market coverage
B) reduce selling expenses
C) facilitate planning and control of selling operations
D) improve sales force performance and morale
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) secure optimum market coverage
23. In E-commerce B2C means
A) Business-to-Business
B) Business-to-consumer
C) Consumer-to-Business
D) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) Business-to-consumer
24. _______ quotas are related to selling costs within area on able limits
A) Sales quotas B) Expense quotas
C) Activity quotas D) Profit quotas
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) Expense quotas
25. Demonstration is an exercise to
A) attractively pack and display the goods
B) prove the characteristics of the product
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) and (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) prove the characteristics of the product
26. In 'Double-win' strategy
A) Customer gets an additional benefit
B) Customer gets price rebate
C) Both customs and the sales person come out with sense of satisfaction
D) Both (A) and (C)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
C) Both customs and the sales person come out with sense of satisfaction
27. The basic advantage of price discounts as
A) flexibility B) convenience of implementation C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) and (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
C) Both (A) and (B)
28. Which among the following media has the highest frequency?
A) T.V B) Direct Mail C) Newspapers
D) Magazines E) None of these
 
29. The main disadvantages of "Radio' as an Advertisement medium is
A) No visual information B) Narrow coverage C) High cost D) All the above E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) No visual information
30. Persuasive advertising is important in the
A) Primary stage B) Competitive stage
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) Competitive stage
31. Direct marketing is an effective tool for
A) Consumer B) Business to business marketing C) Both (A) and (B)
D) All the above E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
C) Both (A) and (B)
32. An intermediary between the producer and consumer is called
A) Middlemen B) Agent C) Broken
D) All the above E) None of these
 
33. A device in which fixed price concept applies only to a part of the output and the remaining output is allowed to be sold at prices determined by marketing forces is called
A) Fixed Price B) Dual Pricing
C) Monopoly Pricing D) Both (A) and (B)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) Dual Pricing
34. The primary purpose of 'Packaging' is
A) Protection B) Appeal
C) Performance D) All of the above
E) None of these
 
35. At the introductory stage, distribution is
A) Massive B) Selective C) Neither (A) nor (B) D) Widespread
E) None of these
 
36. Which among the following is a durable good?
A) Refrigerator B) Biscuits C) Salt
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) Refrigerator
37. Market indicates are expressed in
A) relative terms B) absolute terms
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) and (B) E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
A) relative terms
38. In a marketing, the kings are
A) consumers
B) suppliers
C) producers
D) marketing personnels
E) None of these
 
39. The external constraints, inhibiting the actual or potential purchase behaviour is called
A) determinants
B) inhibitors
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) and (B)
E) None of these
 
40. Who gave the famous 'Consumer Buying Model'?
A) Kotler B)Philips C) Smith
D) Tungsten E) None of these
 
41. In marketing zero level channel implies
A) manufacturer selling to the retailer
B) manufacturer selling to the final consumer
C) retailer selling to the final consumer
D) marketer selling to the final consumer
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) manufacturer selling to the final consumer
42. Which among the following is/are advantages of a decentralized sales force?
A) It is least costly
B) Improved customer service
C) Better returns
D) Lower travels expenses
E) Both (A) and (B)
 
Click Here for Answer
E) Both (A) and (B)
43. A sales potential means
A) an estimate of sales, in dollars or physical units, in a future period
B) an estimate of the maximum possible sales opportunities present in a particular market segment
C) an estimate of sales in a past period
D) Both (A) and (C)
E) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
B) an estimate of the maximum possible sales opportunities present in a particular market segment
44. SBU stands for
1) Stratic Business Unit
2) Secular Business Unit
3) State Bureau Unit
 
Click Here for Answer
1) Stratic Business Unit
45. ----- are the most rigid customers who are not willing to change.
1) Innovators 2) Laggards
3) Early adopters
 
46. ----- extension means brand name extended to new sizes or flavours with the existing product category.
1) Brand 2) New 3) Line
 
47. _____ of product mix refers to how many variants are offered of each product in the line.
1) Depth 2) Length 3) Width
 
48. _____ goods are with unique characteristics which serve a niche market.
1) Shopping 2) Convenience 3) Specialty
 
49. _____ is the basic benefit that a customer seeks from product.
1) Augmented benefit
2) Core benefit
3) Expected benefit
 
Click Here for Answer
2) Core benefit
50. _____ is the act of designing a set of meaningful differences to distinguish the company's offering from competitor,s offering.
1) Differentiation
2) Positioning
3) Segmentation
 
Click Here for Answer
1) Differentiation
51. ---- error cannot be quantified
1) Sampling 2) Non-sampling
3) Total
 
Click Here for Answer
2) Non-sampling
52. ----- sample means the researcher selects the most accessible population members.
1) Quota 2) Judgement 3) Convenience
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Convenience
53. _____ in sample selection is an important characteristic to ensure a representative sample.
1) Randomness 2) Validity
3) Reliability
 
54. ----- buys behaviour is displayed for salt.
1) Habitual 2) Variety-seeking
3) Dissonance-reducing
 
55. ----- is a person whose views or advice caries some weight in making the final decision.
1) Initiator 2) Influencer 3) Decider
 
56. _____ is a person who first suggests the idea of buying the particular product or service.
1) Decider 2) Initiator
3) Influencer
 
57. _____ source means family friends, neighbours, acquaintances.
1) Commercial 2) Experiential
3) Personal
 
58. In terms of the BCG growth-share matrix, businesses in high-growth industries with low market shares are termed as
1) Stars 2) Cash cows 3) Question marks 4) Wolves 5) Dogs
 
59. ______ is where the company diversifies into product lines which are totally unrelated in terms of technology required, customers served, etc.
1) Concentric growth
2) Horizontal
3) Conglomerate diversi-fication
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Conglomerate diversi-fication
60. ---- is when business enjoys positive cash flow.
1) Dog 2) Star 3) Cash cow
 
61. Quality, features, style options, brand name, packaging, guarantees and warranties and service are related to ______ which element of the marketing mix.
1) Place 2) Price 3) Product
 
62. A want when backed by ability to pay becomes
1) Desire 2) Need 3) Demand
 
63. In _____ concept, product is the focal point of attention.
1) Marketing 2) Selling
3) Product
 
64. The "Place" P of marketing mix offers customers.
1) Communication 2) Solution
3) Convenience
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Convenience
65. The 1st P of marketing mix is ______
1) Product 2) Price 3) Promotion
 
66.
______ competition means all other products which could be bought by the same money.
1) Brand 2) Form 3) Generic
 
67. When group of chefs experience the taste, aroma and texture of a proposed new food product, what type of product-testing procedure is being used?
1) laboratory test
2) In-home use test
3) Blind-paired comparison test
4) Panel of experts
5) Focus group
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Panel of experts
68. More new-product projects are dropped during _______ than anywhere else in the product-development process.
1) idea generation
2) Product design
3) Product testing
4) Test marketing
5) Idea screening
 
Click Here for Answer
5) Idea screening
69. Unsought goods refer to
1) A goods involved in exchange for buyer use, consumption or acquisition
2) Any offering that satisfy a want or a need
3) Any object or collection of objects that satisfy a human want or need
4) Any tangible object or collection of objects that satisfy a human want or need and are offered within an exchange relationship
5) Anything that satisfies a want or a need in terms of use, consumption or acquisition
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Any tangible object or collection of objects that satisfy a human want or need and are offered within an exchange relationship
70. The major categories of convenience goods are
1) staple goods, impulse goods and emergency goods
2) Shopping goods, specially goods and unsought goods
3) Staple goods, specialty goods and unsought goods
4) Shopping goods, impulse goods and unsought goods
5) Staple goods, impulse goods and specialty goods
 
Click Here for Answer
1) staple goods, impulse goods and emergency goods
71.
A fast-good business start-up that attempted to appeal to individuals who wanted low-calorie, quick-service food would be most likely to pursue a/an
1) niche strategy
2) Differentiation strategy
3) Cost-leadership strategy
4) Undifferentiated product strategy
5) None of these
 
Click Here for Answer
1) niche strategy
72.
Packaging serves which of the following functions?
A) Facilitating and protecting
B) Product usage and promotion
C) Retail impact and safety
D) All of the above
E) Only (A) and (B) above
 
Click Here for Answer
D) All of the above
73. Toyota's introduction of the Lexus at the top end of the car market is an example of
1) product line filling
2) Line extension
3) Increasing product depth
4) Decreasing product width
5) Product-line stretching
 
Click Here for Answer
5) Product-line stretching
74. When the products under consideration vary widely in quality, the least effective branding strategy is likely to be
1) manufacturer branding
2) National branding
3) Private labeling
4) No-name branding
5) Family branding
 
Click Here for Answer
2) National branding
75. When introducing a new product, for which group of products would a marketing manager be most concerned about reaching consumers who are high in innovativeness?
1) Line extensions
2) Brand extensions
3) Product type extensions
4) New product classes
5) All of the above
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Product type extensions
76. Consumers who evaluate a new car on the basis of an abstract attribute would use which of the following dimensions?
1) Prestige 2) Roominess
3) Price 4) Headroom
5) Power
 
77.
When McDonald's opened a restaurant in Moscow, which of the alternative corporate growth strategies was it emphasizing?
1) diversification
2) Product development
3) Market penetration
4) Market development
5) Vertical development
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Market development
78.
In terms of the BCG portfolio model, a 'cash cow' is
1) expensive to maintain
2) Different from a 'dog' in terms of its growth rate
3) Different from a star in terms of its relative market share
4) Not as goods as a 'question mark'
5) Different from a dog in terms of its relative market share
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Different from a star in terms of its relative market share
79. The questions: 'What businesses are we in?' and 'What businesses should we be in? are essentially focused
1) horizontal level
2) SBU level
3) functional level
4) business level
5) corporate level
 
80.
Profit contribution is an element of which of the five major components of strategy?
1) scope
2) goals and objectives
3) resource deployment
4) identification of a sustainable competitive advantage
5) synergy
 
Click Here for Answer
3) resource deployment
81. PepsiCo's focus on 'marketing superior quality food and beverage products for households consumers dining out' is an example of the organization's
1) synergy 2) mission 3) tactics
 
82. What is the focus of marketing management?
1) Analysis
2) Co-ordination
3) Beneficial exchange
4) Distribution
5) Execution
 
83. Firms that incorporate market and competitive analyses into their planning processes and co-ordinate their activities around the primary goal of satisfying unmet customer needs are
1) market oriented
2) Pre-emptive strategists
3) Pure competitors
4) Oligopolists
5)Monopolists
 
Click Here for Answer
2) Pre-emptive strategists
84.
Quality, features, style, options, brand name, packaging, guarantees and warranties and service are related to which element of the marketing mix?
1) Place 2) Price 3) Product
4) Promotion 5) Personnel
 
85. Which of the following best describes Involvement?
1) Consumer's disinterest in a product or service
2) Relationship users develop with selected products and services.
3) Degree of personal relevance of a product or service to a consumer
4) Motivation to contribute to the improvement of a brand
5) Both (2) and (3)
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Motivation to contribute to the improvement of a brand
86.
Selective distribution is associated with the distribution of
1) Convenience goods
2) Unsought goods
3) Shopping goods
4) Impulse goods
5) Specialty goods
 
Click Here for Answer
5) Specialty goods
87.
Which of the following lists contains an item that is NOT an element of the basic communication process?
1) Sender, message, receiver
2) Message, feedback, promotion
3) Encoding, noise, decoding
4) Feedback, field of experience, medium
5) Message, receiver, feedback
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Encoding, noise, decoding
88. When driver and passenger air bags were first introduced to the automobile market, these features were part of the - product; however, ten years later so many cars had these features that they had become part of the - product.
1) Potential; augmented
2) Augmented; generic
3) Potential; expected
4) Augmented; expected
5) Expected; core
 
Click Here for Answer
5) Expected; core
89.
John wants blue jeans that are stylish, but his mother wants jeans that she can paint the house in and get dirty. This is an example of
1) Heterogeneous demand
2) Individual differences
3) Market segmentation
4) Generation differences
5) Both (2) and (3)
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Generation differences
90.
Blake's is a highly renowned clothes retailer. The price for an average shirt in the store is in the Rs.1000 - Rs.2000 range. Which of the following would be the least viable target marketing strategy?
1) Advertisements in the Sunday newspaper.
2) Obtain post-codes for affluent neighbourhoods.
3) Target major upscale businesses
4) Put flyers up the local discount store.
5) Advertise in business magazines.
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Target major upscale businesses
91. When segmenting a product to teenagers who play Cricket in Mumbai streets, which of the following segmentation bases are being used?
1) Benefit sought and demographics
2) Psychographics and geographics
3) P s y c h o g r a p h i c s , demographics and geographics
4) Demographics, benefit sought and psychographics
5) Usage rate, demographics, geographics
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Demographics, benefit sought and psychographics
92. The factor that influences a customer's service experience over most service firms have the least control is
1) Service-scape
2) Organisation and systems
3) Other customers
4) Contract personnel
5) Service provider
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Other customers
93. Interpersonal skills will be more important to service providers than to goods manufacturers due primarily to
1) Intangibility
2) Inseparability
3) Homogeneity
4) Perishability
5) Heterogeneity
 
Click Here for Answer
1) Intangibility
94. Short channels would be more likely to be used by
1) Technically complex products
2) Small manufactures
3) Manufactures who do not care to exercise a high degree of control over the distribution
4) Manufacturers that lack financial resources
5) All of the above
 
Click Here for Answer
5) All of the above
95. Which of the following statements is false?
1) Services cannot be touched or seen in the same manner as goods.
2) Consumer judgements about services tend to be more subjective than objective.
3) Most services are not consumed at the point of production.
4) Services tend to vary from one transaction to the next.
5) Services cannot be inventoried
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Most services are not consumed at the point of production.
96. A company introducing a new product should use a price penetration strategy if.
1) Investment costs are low.
2) There is little threat of copy-cat competition.
3) The price elasticity of demand is inelastic.
4) Volume means lower production costs.
5) The productions has a short life expectancy.
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Volume means lower production costs.
97. Which of the following statements is least true regarding push and pull strategies?
1) Personal selling is especially important with a push strategy
2) Advertising is especilly important with a push strategy.
3) Push and pull strategies are complementary rather than representing perfect substitutes for one another.
4) A pull strategy involes encouraging consumer demand for a particular brand in order to obtain distribution for the brand in retail outlets.
5) Advertising is especially important with a pull strategy.
 
Click Here for Answer
3) Push and pull strategies are complementary rather than representing perfect substitutes for one another.
98. Meeting price cuts will-, while meeting price increases will-
1) Eliminate a competitive disadvantage; increase margins
2) Create a competitive disadvantage; reduce margins
3) Decrease demand; increase margins
4) Alienate customers; keep customers happy
5) Eliminate a competitive disadvantages; reduce margins
 
Click Here for Answer
1) Eliminate a competitive disadvantage; increase margins
99. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for successful segmentation of markets?
1) Heterogeneity
2) Measurability
3) Substantiality
4) Accessibility
5) Appropriateness
 
Click Here for Answer
4) Accessibility
100. The mission statement gives a sense of purpose, direction and opportunity to the employees, a sense of sharing a common objective and working towards it in a cohesive manner.
1) True 2) False
 
101. Difficult-comparison effect buyers are less prices sensitive when they can not easily compare the quality of substitutes.
1) True 2) False
 
102. Maximum market share or market penetration is the objective that is generally followed by companies which operate in a highly price sensitive market, and where economies of scale result in lower production costs with increased production.
1) True 2) False
 
103. Personal selling is very effective in the later stages of the buying process, particularly in building up buyer preference, conviction, and action.
1) True 2) False
 
104. Optional feature pricing this policy is followed by companies that sell products which require the use of other products; like cameras and film, razors and razor blades.
1) True 2) False
 
105. Companies charge a fairly low price for a high-quality offering.
1) True 2) False
 
106. Early majority are those who follow the innovators. They are the ones who do not want to be left behind.
1) True 2) False
 
107. Cycle-recycle pattern is where sales pass through a succession of life cycles as one discovers new uses, users and product characteristics.
1) True 2) False
 
108. Positioning is not what you do to a product.
Positioning is what you do to the mind of the prospect.
1) True 2) False
 
109. Product concept holds that consumers will favour those products that offer the most quality, variety, performance, or innovative features, irrespective of the value offered by the product to the consumer.
1) True 2) False
 
110. An attitude describes a person's enduring favourable or unfavourable cognitive evaluations, emotional feeling and action tendencies towards some objector idea.
1) True 2) False
 
111. Responsiveness the ability to perform the promised service dependably and accurately.
1) True 2) False
 
112. The organization has to be promoted to the customers. This is done by way of advertising, brand building, managing the evidence, etc. This is known as interactive marketing.
1) True 2) False
 
113. A push strategy creates a demand in the market through heavy advertising and consumer promotions.
1) True 2) False
 
114. A push strategy creates a demand in the market through heavy advertising and consumer promotions.
1) True 2) False
 
115. Expert channels are where you have the company salesman or representative contacting buyers and explaining buyers and explaining the benefits of the product.
1) True 2) False
 
116. The learn-do-feel sequence is adopted for most high-involvement products where product differentiation is high, and /or product visibility is high.
1) True 2) False
 
117. Rational Appeal is where the content clearly elicits the qualities, benefits, and features of the product.
1) True 2) False
 
118. Selective distortion is the personal interpretation of each individual which tends to change the meaning of the message to fit one's own preconceptions.
1) True 2) False
 
119. Push and Pull marketing differ with respect to markets under consideration.
1) True 2) False
 
120. Low quality trap means consumers who buy your product because of the low price would be likely to shift loyalties if another low-priced product was introduced in the market.
1) True 2) False
 
121. In Going-Rate Pricing, the firm bases its price largely on competitors prices.
1) True 2) False
 
122. In general, the shorter the channel structure, the lower the degree of control.
1) True 2) False
 
123. Decisions to follow a competitor's price change generally do not need to take into account elasticity of demand.
1) True 2) False
 
124. The consumption of services is often separated by time ans space.
1) True 2) False
 
125. Customers who complain are more likely to do business with the firm again than non-complainers.
1) True 2) False
 
126. The objective of marketing management in the mature phase of the product life cycle is to find new products to substitute for this dying product line.
1) True 2) False
 
127. Sales promotions directed at retailers are designed to push (versus pull) brands through the channels of distribution.
1) True 2) False
 
128. The concept of a hierarchy of effects suggests that there is a hierarchy of marketing communications tools based on their relative importance.
1) True
2) False
 
129. The Java's access specifier are
1) public
2) private
3) protected
4) all the above
 
Click Here for Answer
4) all the above
130. In modern times only those who can combine.....with....... will succeed in industry.
1) power..... strength
2) economy...... efficiency
3) skill..... craftsmanship
4) solution...... practice
5) knowledge...... working
 
Click Here for Answer
2) economy...... efficiency
131. market of buyer means
 
Click Here for Answer
supply is more than demand
132. The target group for Agricultural Loans is____
 
133. Bank assurance means____
 
Click Here for Answer
Banks selling insurance products
134. Market Research is needed for_____
 
Click Here for Answer
Making proper marketing decisions
135. Digital Marketing is____
 
Click Here for Answer
way of direct marketing
136. Bank Insurance means_____
 
Click Here for Answer
Selling insurance products through banks
137. A target group in marketing means______
 
Click Here for Answer
To whom sales should be directed
138. CRM Means____
 
Click Here for Answer
Customer Relashionship Management
139. DSA Means____
 
Click Here for Answer
Directly Selling Agent
140. A call centre is ____
 
Click Here for Answer
A back office set up where customer queries are answered
141. Internal Marketing Means_______
 
Click Here for Answer
selling to the employees
142. Market share means______
 
Click Here for Answer
Share of business among peers
143. Market size means_____
 
Click Here for Answer
Scope of Marketing
144. Service Marketing is the same as
 
Click Here for Answer
Transaction Marketing
145. One way of Market Monitoring is_____
 
Click Here for Answer
Monitor performance of salespersons
146. ATM Means
 
Click Here for Answer
Automated Teller Machine
147. Marketing is not required for_____
 
Click Here for Answer
Corporate loans
148. Relationshipmarketing is useful for____
 
Click Here for Answer
cross selling of products
149. competition helps to ___
 
150. Effective communication skills are not required im marketing if _____
 
Click Here for Answer
demand exceeds supply
151. _____ is not required for effective marketing.
 
152. HNI in marketing means
 
Click Here for Answer
High Networth Indiidual
153. A market plan is
 
Click Here for Answer
a document for marketing strategies
154. 'Niche' Market means____
 
Click Here for Answer
a specified market for the target group
155. POS in marketing means
 
Click Here for Answer
Position of Sales
156. Customisation means
 
Click Here for Answer
customers selling goods
157. Customer retention means
 
Click Here for Answer
better standards
158. value added service menas
 
Click Here for Answer
costlier service
159. Benchmark means____
 
160. a lead means____
 
Click Here for Answer
a company intending to sell its products
161. A presentation means____
 
Click Here for Answer
display of communication skills
162. The sequence of a sales process is ____
 
Click Here for Answer
a lead,a call,presentation and sale
163. A buyers market means
 
Click Here for Answer
Supply exceeds demand
164. Marketing in Banks is____
 
Click Here for Answer
a one off affair
165. A true marketing requires
 
Click Here for Answer
Active mindset
166. The Traditional Marketing style involves
 
Click Here for Answer
Direct Marketing
167. A call means
 
Click Here for Answer
calling on prospective customers
168. Innovation means
 
Click Here for Answer
implementing new ideas or new methods
169. A lead means
 
Click Here for Answer
a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's Product
170. A prospect means
 
Click Here for Answer
a customer who is likely to be interested in bank's product or service
171. Cross selling covers
 
Click Here for Answer
matching the products to customer needs
172. Middlemen are nothing but social parasites and the sooner they are eliminated the better for society". This statement is related with: ?
 
Click Here for Answer
Disadvantage caused to consumers due to middlemen
173. The period of third stage of development of Marketing Management was __
 
Click Here for Answer
1950 to till now
174. Which year is being treated as the beginning year of Marketing Management development ?
 
175. A brand of company which is used by manufacturer as well as distributor is called __
 
176. A Brand which is owned by a distributor and registered in his name is called:
 
Click Here for Answer
Distributors Brand
177. In the context of globalization, BPO means ?
 
Click Here for Answer
Business Process Outsourcing
178. Who said in the context of Rural marketing "If Rural people start buying merely 10% industrial foods, then this industry will get five crore new customers" ?
 
179. "Product is a cluster of psychological satisfaction" was said by ?
 
180. Time period of the second stage of Marketing management development was __ ?
 
181. What was the time period of the first stage of development of Marketing Management ?