PUNJAB AND SIND BANK(PO)-2010
Time Remaining :

Test
 
1. In a certain code language 'they have come back' is written as 'na ja sa da' and 'they have gone there' is written as 'da ka pa na'. How is 'come' written in that code language?
  sa
na
ja
sa or ja
Data inadequate
Test
 
2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters IFEL using each letter only once in each word?
  None
One
Two
Three
More than three
Test
 
3. Each consonant in the word TIRADES is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the new letters are rearranged alphabetically. Which of the following will be the fourth from the right end?
  F
J
Q
C
None of these
Test
 
4. Pointing to a girl, Mihir said, "She is the only daughter of my grandfather's only child." How is the girl related to Mihir?
  Daughter
Niece
Sister
Data inadequate
None of these
Test
 
5. In a row of twentyfive children facing south, R is sixteenth from the right end and B is eighteenth from the left end. How many children are there between R and B?
  2
3
4
Data inadequate
None of these
Test
 
6. W walked 40 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 30 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres, He again took aright turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?
  70 metres
60 metres
90 metres
Cannot be determined
None of these
Test
 
7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word POSITIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  None
One
Two
Three
More than three
Test
 
8. In a certain code GATE is written as 5*3$ and TOUR is written as 32#%. How is URGE written in that code?
  3%5S
$%#5
)#%3S
#%5$
None of these
Test
 
9. If it is possible to form only one such number with the third, the sixth and the seventh digits of the number 7394261 which is the perfect square of a two-digit odd number, which of the following will be the first digit of that two-digit odd number?
  9
3
5
No such number can be formed
More than one such number can be formed
Test
 
10. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 539816 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number?
  None
One
Two
Three
More than three
Test
 
11. Directions (Q. 11-15): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
519 328 746 495 837


If half of the second highest number is subtracted from the third highest number, what will be its Vulue?
  156
146
213
314
None of these
Test
 
12. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the lowest number?
  1
2
7
9
3
Test
 
13. If in each number the third digit becomes the first digit, the first digit becomes the second digit and the second digit becomes the third digit, which of the following will be the first digit of the second highest number?
  9
6
3
7
8
Test
 
14. Which of the following represents the di fference between the first and the second digits of the second highest number?
  4
1
3
5
None of these
Test
 
15. If' 1' is subtracted from the third digit of each number and ' 1' is added to the first digit of each number, which of the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the second lowest number?
  13
9
3
5
None of these
Test
 
16. Directions (Q. 16-20); Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
H93P$KE%4FR1U@WG2MI5BQZ6@*N#8VJ


If all the symbols and numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the followmg will be the fourteenth from the right end?
  M
K
W
E
None of these
Test
 
17. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
PK% RUW M5Q ?
  N8
N#
#*5
6*8
None of these
Test
 
18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
  None
One
Two
Three
More than three
Test
 
19. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?
  U
S
M
N
None of these
Test
 
20. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number but not immediately preceded by a number?
  None
One
Two
Three
More than three
Test
 
21. Directions (Q. 21-25): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even If they seems to be at variance with eonnimoily known facts. Read all the conclusions and then, decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:
Some carrots are brinjals.
Some brinjals are apples.
All apples are bananas.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are carrots.
II. Some bananas are brinjals.
III.Some bananas are carrots.
  Only I follows
Only II follows
Only III follows
Only either II or III follow
None of these
Test
 
22. Statements:
All keys are locks.
All locks are bangles.
All bangles are cars. Conclusions:
I. Some cars are locks.
II. Some bangles are keys.
III.Some cars are keys.
  Only I follows
Only I and II follow
Only I and III follow
Only II and III follow
All I, II and III follow
Test
 
23. Statements:
All fruits are leaves.
Some leaves are trees.
No tree is house.
Conclusions:
I. Some houses are fruits.
II. Some trees are fruits.
III.No house is a fruit.
  Only I follows
Only II follows
Only III follows
Only either I or III follows
None follows
Test
 
24. Statements:
All tables are mirrors.
Some mirrors are chairs.
All chairs are glasses.
Conclusions:
I Some glasses are mirrors.
II. Some chairs are tables.
III. Some mirrors are tables.
  Only I and II follow
Only II and III follow
Only I and III follow
All I, II and III follow
None of these
Test
 
25. Statements:
All calculators are boxes.
All boxes are taps.
Some taps are machines.
Conclusions:
I. Some machines are boxes.
II. Some taps are calculators.
III. Some boxes are calculators.
  Only I and II follow
Only I and III follow
Only II and III follow
All I, II and III follow
None of these
Test
 
26. Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input : gain 96 63 forest 38 78 deep house
Step I : deep gain 96 63 forest 38 78 house
Step II : deep 38 gain 96 63 forest 78 house
Step III : deep 38 forest gain 96 63 78 house
Step IV : deep 38 forest 63 gain 96 78 house
Step V : deep 38 forest 63 gain 78 96 house
Step VI : deep 38 forest 63 gain 78 house 96
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.


Input: train 59 47 25 over burden 63 sky
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
  VI
V
IV
VII
None of these
Test
 
27. Input: service 46 58 96 of there desk 15 Which of the following will be step VI?
  desk 15 over service 46 58 96 there
desk 15 over 46 service there 58 96
desk 15 over 46 service 58 there 96
desk 15 over 46 service 58 96 there
There will be no such step.
Test
 
28. Step II of an input is: below 1293 house floor 69 57 task Which of the following will definitely be the input?
  93 house 89 57 below task floor 12
93 house below 69 57 task floor 12
93 house floor 69 57 task below 12
Cannot be determined
None of these
Test
 
29. Step III of an input is: art 24 day 83 71 54 star power Which of the following steps will be the last?
  V
VIII
IX
VII
None of these
Test
 
30. Step II of an input is : cold 17 wave 69 never desk 52 43 How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
  Six
Five
Four
Three
None of these
Test
 
31. Directions (Q, 31-35): Study the following inforinatioa carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is second to the left of P and third to the right of V. S is second to the right of W, who is on the immediate right of T. Q is third to the right of U.


In which of the following pairs is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
  USP
VRU
TQW
WPS
None of these
Test
 
32. Who is on the immediate left of T?
  Q
W
R
Data inadequate
None of these
Test
 
33. Who is second to the right of P?
  S
V
U
Q
Date inadequate
Test
 
34. What is R's position with respect to W?
  Third to the left
Fourth to the left
Sixth to the right
Fifth to the left
None of these
Test
 
35. Who is fourth to the left of R?
  U
P
S
W
None of these
Test
 
36. Directions (Q. 36-40): In the following questions, the symbols *,#, %, @ and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P % Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P & Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q',
'P * Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q' means 'P is not greater than.Q\
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and HI given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

Statement: R#K, K*M, M@J Conclusions:
I. J&K
II.M&R
III.R*J
  Only 1 and II are true
Only II and III are true
Only I and III are true
All I, II and III are true
None of these
Test
 
37. Statements: Z@M, M&K, K*F
Conclusions:
I. F Z
II. K*Z
III. FM
  None is true
Only I is true
Only II is true
Only III is true
Only II and III are true
Test
 
38. Statements: B * J, J%W, W&M Conclusions:
I. M * J
II. W*B
IIl. B&M
  None is true
Only I is true
Only II is true
Only III is true
Only I and III are true
Test
 
39. Statements: V%H, H@F, F#E Conclusions:
I. F@V
II. F*V
III. E%H
  Only either I or II is true
Only III is true
Only I and II are true
All I, II and III are true
Only either I or II and III are true
Test
 
40. Statements: W&T, T#N, N%D Conclusions:
I. D*T
II. W#N
III. D@T
  None is true
Only I is true
Only II is true
Only III is true
Only I and II are true
Test
 
41. Directions (Q. 41-45): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/ symbols numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). You have to find out which off the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark 5), ie 'None of these', as your answer.
Letter : P M K E A I Z T R U B F N V D
Digit/Symbol Code: $ 3 1 4 @ 2 5 # 8 7 & 6 % # 9

Conditions: .
(i) If the first tetter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as ir.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is
a vowel their codes are to be interchanged,
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels both are to be coded as the first letter.


IFNVDE
  26%#92
46%#92
46%#94
*6%#9*
None of these
Test
 
42. KEIMPD
  9423$1
1423$9
9423$9
1423$1
None of these
Test
 
43. UBTIZN
  7%

**
75#257
None of these
Test
 
44. BAEFNP
  &@46%&
$@46%5&
*@46%*
$@46%$
None of these
Test
 
45. RKPZFI
  81$562
81$568
21$562
21$568
None of these
Test
 
46. Directions (Q. 46-50): Below in each question are given two statements (A) arsd (B), These statements may be effects of independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or of a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts-the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and
statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and
statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Marie answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

A. The average day temperature of the city has
increased by about 2 degrees in the current year over the average of past ten years.
B. More people living in rural areas of the state have started migrating to the urban areas in comparison with the earlier year.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
47. A, Most of the shopkeepers in the locality closed their shops for the second continuous day.
B. Two groups of people living in the locality have been fighting with each other with bricks and stones, forcing people to stay indoors.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
48. A. The Govt has decided to increase the prices of
LPG cylinders with immediate effect.
B. The Govt has decided to increase the prices of kerosene with immediate effect.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
49. A. A cyclonic storm is expected to hit the coastline in the state during the next 48 hours. B. Warning has been issued that heavy rains are expected in the coastal region in the state during the next 48 hours.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
50. A. Majority of the first year students of the engineering col lege failed in Mathematics in the semester examination.
B. The college authority terminated the contract of the Professor who taught mathematics to the first-year students.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
51. Directions (Q. 51-55): In each question beiow is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer 1) if only Assumption I is implicit.
Give answer 2) if only Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer 3) if either Assumption I or Assumption His implicit.
Give answer 4) if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer 5) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit.


Statement: A very large number of people stood in the queue for buying tickets for the one-day international cricket match scheduled to be played in the city on the next day.
Assumptions:
I. No other one-day international cricket match may be played in the city for the next six months.
II. Majority of those who stood in the queue may be able to get ticket for the one-day international cricket match.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
52. Statement: The highway police authority put up large boards at regular intervals indicating the speed limit and dangers of over-speeding on the highways.
Assumptions:
I. Most of the motorists may drive their vehicles within the speed limit on the highways.
II. Motorists generally ignore such cautions and over-speed on the highways.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
53. Statement: The employees' association urged its members to stay away from the annual function as many of their demands were not met by the management.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the members ofthe association may not attend the function.
II. The management may cancel the annual function.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
54. Statement: The sarpanch of the village called a meeting of all the heads of the families to discuss the problem of acute shortage of drinking water in the village.
Assumptions:
I. The sarpanch had earlier called such meetings to discuss about various problems.
II. Most of the heads of families may attend the meeting called by the sarpanch.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
55. Statement: The municipal corporation advised all the people living in the shanties along the beaches to move to higher places during monsoon.
Assumptions:
I. felany people living in the shanties may leave the city and relocate themselves elsewhere in is state.
II. Majority of the people living in the shanties along the beach may try to relocate to higher places during monsoon.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
56. Directions (Q. 56-60); Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each Inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer 1) If he inference is 'definitely true, ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer 2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'definitely true, in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer 3) if the 'data are inadequate', ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer 4) if the inference is 'probably false', though not 'definitely false' in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer 5) If the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Investors today have more investment options than were available just a few years ago. Choice in any decision making is good in so far it provides variety differentiation and benchmarking. It could also, however, at times lead to clutter and "noise" if the options are mostly similar and undifferentiated. To make sense of this choice conundrum, it is imperative for an investor to define the objective both returns and digestible risk and then identify the possible options. The investor also needs to select the mix and regularly monitor that objectives and investment outcomes remain aligned. Sounds simple, but can present the most confounding situations which multiplies with the quantum of wealth.


Investment of higher amount is relatively simpler than smaller amounts.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
57. Investors need to critically evaluate the risk of each investment option.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
58. Present-day investors need to use their judgement more critically before investing.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
59. Multiple investment options of similar type help in making better investment decisions.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
60. In the past, investors were generally guided by the fund managers.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
61.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
62.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
63.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
64.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
65.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
66.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
67.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
68.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
69.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
70.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
71.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
72.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
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73.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
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74.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
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75.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
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76.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
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77.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
78.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
79.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
80. 36% of 245 - 40% of 210 = 10 - ?
  4.2
6.8
4.9
5.6
None of these
Test
 
81. Rita invested 25% more than Sunil. Sunil invested 30% less than Abhinav, who invested Rs 6,000. What is the ratio of the amount that Rita invested to the total amount invested by all of them together?
  35:104
13:29
101:36
35:103
None of these
Test
 
82. A man gets a simple interest of Rs 1,000 on a certain principal at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. in 4 years. What compound interest will the man get on twice the principal in two years at the same rate?
  Rs 1,000
Rs 1,005
Rs11,025
Rs 10,125
None of these
Test
 
83. The perimeter of a square is equal to twice the perimeter of a rectangle of length 8 cm and breadth 7 cm. What is the circumference of a semicircle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square?(Rounded off to two decimal place)
  38.57cm
23.57cm
42.46cm
47.47 cm
None of these
Test
 
84. Radha's present age is three years less than twice her age 12 years ago. Also, the ratio of Raj's present age to Radha's present age is 4:9. What will be Raj's age after 5 years?
  12 years
7 years
21 years
Cannot be determined
None of these
Test
 
85. The ratio of the speeds of a, car, a train and a bus is 5 :9 : 4. The average speed of the car, the bus and the train is 72 km/hr together. What Is the average speed of the car and the train together?
  82 km/hr
78 km/hr
84 km/hr
Cannot be determined
None of these
Test
 
86. Directions (Q. 86-90): In the following number series only one is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
32 34 37 46 62 87 123
  34
37
62
87
46
Test
 
87. 7 18 40 106 183 282 403
  18
282
40
106
183
Test
 
88. 850 843 829 808 788 745 703
  843
829
808
788
745
Test
 
89. 33 321 465 537 573 590 600



  321
465
573
537
590
Test
 
90. 37 47 52 67 87 112 142
  47
52
67
87
112
Test
 
91.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
92.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
93.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
94.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
95.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
96.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
97. What is the average monthly expenditure on food by all the people together?
  Rs 1.08.500
Rs 10,850
Rs 54,250
Rs 52,450
None of these
Test
 
98. Whose monthly expenditure on all the heads together is the lowest among them?
  A
B
C
D
F
Test
 
99. If the monthly expenditure of C on children's education is increased by 5%, then what will be his yearly expenditure on children's education?
  Rs 1,58.760
Rs 15,87,600
Rs 13,230
Rs 1,32,300
None of these
Test
 
100. What is the ratio of the monthly expenditure made by A on travelling to the monthly expenditure made by D on clothes?
  57:105
105:59
37:103
59:105
None of these
Test
 
101.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
102. What is the difference between the number of female players who play Lawn Tennis and the number of male players who play Rugby?
  94
84
220
240
None of these
Test
 
103. What is the ratio of the number of female players who play Cricket to the number of male players who play Hockey?
  20:7
4:21
20:3
3:20
None of these
Test
 
104. What is the total number of the male players who play Football, Cricket and Lawn tennis together?
  1,724
1,734
1,824
1,964
None of these
Test
 
105. The number of male players who play Rugby is
approximately what percentage of the total number of players who play Lawn Tennis?
  33
39
26
21
43
Test
 
106.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
107. What was the approximate average number of candidates qualified in the written test for admission to Institution B over all the years?
  4,555
4,200
4,160
4,888
4,667
Test
 
108. In which year was the total number of candidates qualified in the written test for admission to both the institutions together the second highest?
  2003
2004
2005
2006
2007
Test
 
109. What is the difference between the total number of candidates qualified in written test in the year 2006 for admission to Institution A and B together and the number of candidates qualified in written test in the year 2003 for admission to institution A?
  5,000
3,500
1,500
5,500
None of these
Test
 
110. What was the total number of candidates qualified in the written test for admission to Institution A over all the years together?
  27,000
26,500
26,000
27,500
None of these
Test
 
111. Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
There are two companies A and B. Both companies produce all the four different products, viz Computers, Phones, Pen drives and Compact Discs (CDs). Company A produces a total of 800 products. The ratio of the total products produced by Company A to that by Company B is 4:5.20% of the total products produced by Company B are Pen Drives and 40% of them are CDs. Two-fifths of the remaining products produced by Company B are Phones. The total number of Computers produced by both the companies together is 340.20% of the total products produced by Company A are CDs. Company A produces equal number of Pen Drives and Phones.


What is the ratio of the number of Pen Drives produced by Company A to the number of Computers produced by Company B?
  8:9
9:7
7:9
4:9
None of these
Test
 
112. What is the total number of Phones produced by both the companies together?
  430
420
390
530
None of these
Test
 
113. The number of Phones produced by Company A is what percentage of the total number of products produced by Company B?
  25
29
33
37
None of these
Test
 
114. What is the average of the number of Pen Drives, CDs and Computers produced by Company B?
  840
280
270
860
None of these
Test
 
115. What is the difference between the number of CDs produced by Company B and the number of Computers produced by Company A?
  200
250
300
350
None of these
Test
 
116. The sum of three consecutive odd numbers and three consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also, the smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and the largest even number?
  82
83
74
Cannot be determined
None of these
Test
 
117. Two-thirds of the first number is equal to the cube of the second number. If the second number is equal to twelve per cent of 50, what is the sum of the first and the second numbers?
  330
360
390
372
None of these
Test
 
118. Raj ni purchased a mobile phone and a refrigerator for Rs 12,000 and Rs 10,000 respectively. She sold the refrigerator at a loss of 12 per cent and the mobile phone at a profit of 8 per cent. What is her overall loss/profit?
  Loss of Rs 280
Profit of Rs 2,160
Loss of Rs 240
Profit of Rs 2,060
None of these
Test
 
119. The average age of seven boys sitting in a row facing North is 26 years. If the average age of the first three boys is 19 years and the average age of the last three boys is 32 years, What is the age of the boy who is sitting in middle of the row?
  28 years
29 years
24 years
31 years
None of these
Test
 
120. The perimeter of a square is double the perimeter of a rectangle. The area of the rectangle is 240 sq cm. What is the area of the square?
  100sqcm
36sqcm
81 sq cm
Cannot be determined
None of these
Test
 
121.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
122. 4734.96-3454.03-1612.86=?-1611.43
  1280
2290
1020
18150
1040
Test
 
123.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
124. 133.008 x 2.97-111.87+74.13 = ?
  311
234
357
290
399
Test
 
125.
  Answer1
Answer2
Answer3
Answer4
Answer5
Test
 
126. Directions (Q. 126-140) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
When wealth came into existence, a moral structure was made around money. The Puritan legacy inhibited luxury and self-indulgence. Thoughtful people spread a practical gospel that emphasized hard work, temperance and frugality and the result was quite remarkable.
The world has been affluent since its founding. But it was, by and large, not corrupted by wealth. For centuries, it remained industrious, ambitious and frugal. Over the past 30 years, much of that has been shredded. The social norms and institutions that encouraged frugality and spending what you earn have been undermined. The institutions that encourage debt and living for the moment have been strengthened. The moral guardians are forever looking for decadence out of movies and reality shows. But the most rampant decadence today is financial decadence, the trampling of decent norms about how to use and harness money.
The deterioration of financial traditions has meant two things. First, it has meant an explosion of debt that inhibits social mobility and ruins lives. Second, the transformation has led to a stark financial polarization. On the one hand, there is what is called an investor class. It has tax-deferred savings plans, as well as an army of financial advisers. On the other hand, there is the lottery class, people with little access to financial planning but plenty of access to payday lenders, credit cards and lottery agents.
The loosening of financial inhibition has meant more options for the well-educated but more temptation and chaos for the most vulnerable. Social norms, the invisible threads that guide behaviour, have deteriorated. Over the past years, people have heen more socially conscious about protecting the environment and inhaling tobacco. They have become less socially conscious about money and debt.
The agents of destruction are many and State governments have also played a role. They hawk their lottery products with aggression, which some people call a tax on stupidity. Twenty per cent of the world's population consists of frequent players, spending about $60 billion a year. Aside from the financial toll, the moral toll is comprehensive. Here is the government, the guardian of order, telling people that they don't have to work to build for the future. They can strike it rich for nothing.
Payday lenders have also played a role. They seductively offer fast cash at absurd interest rates to 15 million people every month. Credit card companies have played a role. Instead of targeting the financially astute, who pay off their debts, they have found that they can make money off the young and vulnerable. Fifty-six per cent of students in their final year of college carry four or more credit cards.
The nation's leaders have played a role as they have always had an incentive to shove costs for current promises on to the backs of future generations. It has only now become respectable to do so. The market itself has played a role. Software stalwarts built socially useful products to make their fortune.
But what message do the salary packages that their top managers get send across the country when they ignore millions of fellow countrymen who suffer from poverty, malnutrition or hunger? Austerity has become a thing of the past. The list could go on. But there could be some recommendations. First, raise public consciousness about debt the way the anti-smoking activists did with their campaign. Second, create institutions that encourage thrift. Foundations and religious institutions could issue short-term loans to cut into the 'payday lenders' business. Colleges could reduce credit card advertising on campus. The tax code should tax consumption, not income.
But the most important thing is to shift values. The 'wise' made it prestigious to embrace certain middle-class virtues. Now it's socially acceptable to undermine those virtues. It is considered normal to play the debt game and imagine that decisions made today will have no consequences in the future.


What does the author mean by the phrase the transformation has ledto.a stark financial polarization', as used in the passage?

  The deterioration of social norms has benefited only the wealthy and the knowledgeable while the vulnerable class of people has fallen into a debt trap.
Since moral inhibitions no longer exist, the debt agents' provide loans only to the affluent class, thus widening the gap between the rich and the poor.
The debt culture is. being utilized as a measure to draw money from the wealthy class by credit card companies.
Both 1) and 2)
None of these
Test
 
127. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
  Ever since its existence, money has ruined lives owing to lack of awareness among people regarding its unrestricted usage.
Government has taken many initiatives to control the rampant money-lending business to protect vulnerable sections of the society.
Governments throughout the world have been putting tax on the amount of consumption of an individual rather than on his/her income.
Credit card companies are discreet enough to provide credit cards to only those people who guarantee repaying money in the future.
None is true
Test
 
128. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage?
  The debt culture and government initiatives to curtail it
Breaking social barriers taking the route of financial indulgence
Accumulation of debt a lesson for the future generations
Effect of 'consumerism' on the world market
Lack of perseverance for saving money in India
Test
 
129. Which of the following, according to the author, has/ have been responsible for the encouragement of culture of debt in the society lately?
(A) The changing lifestyle which makes it impossible for a common man to sustain himself without debts and loans
(B) Breaking down of moral institutions which supported economic prudence
(C) Provision for easy availability of loans to every section of the society regardless of their ability to repay these
  Only A
Only B
Both A and C
Both B and C
None of these
Test
 
130. The author of the given passage seems to be definitely
  suggesting that the agents of debt be banned from the society.
unaware of the benefits associated with the easy availability of loans these days.
in favour of bringing back the financial restrictions once imposed by the society.
not supportive of campaigns related to anti-tobacco and saving the environment.
None of these
Test
 
131. Why does the author of the given passage seem to be displeased with the software stalwarts?
  They make fortune out of the products which are barely socially useful.
They have been drawing colossal salaries and turn a blind eye towards the needs of fellow countrymen.
They are directly responsible for the hunger, malnutrition and poverty among their fellow countrymen.
They have promoted the culture of debt among various sections of society.
None of these.
Test
 
132. Which of the following suggestions have been made by the author in order to check the culture promoting debts?
(A) Putting a ban on the companies providing credit cards indiscriminately
(B) Taking the help of informal institutions to limit the business of money-lending by payday lenders
(C) Raising public awareness about negative effects of injudicious borrowing of money.
(D) Taking action against governments which have been allowing lottery in their states
  Only AandC
Only D
Only C and D
Only B and C
None of these
Test
 
133. Which of the following statements would weaken the argument made by the author in the given paragraph?
  A newspaper article reported an improvement in the lifestyle of millions of people after loans were made easy to avail to not only the wealthy but to all sections of society.
A man along with his family was forced to live on streets after he lost all of his life's earning to buy lottery tickets.
Profit earned from credit card companies has become an essential component in the economy of a growing nation.
Last year's recession was mainly due to losses incurred by companies offering loans as a large number of their clients turned out to be defaulters.
None of these
Test
 
134. Which one of the phrases given below the following statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningfully correct sentence in the context of the passage?
___________ many State governments
have been encouraging people to invest their money in lottery.
  Despite the fact that lottery generates substantial revenue
Since it has the potential to ruin lives of millions of people
Instead of educating people against risky financial indulgence
Since only one-fifth of the total world's population invests frequently in lottery
None of these
Test
 
135. Directions (Q. 135-137): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.


THRIFT
  Compassion
Prudence
Pleasure
Acceptance
Desire
Test
 
136. STRIKEIT
  Smash
Reveal
Register
Assume
Become
Test
 
137. AGGRESSION
  Violence
Hostility
Offensively
Determination
Belligerence
Test
 
138. Directions (Q. 138-140): Choose the word/phrase which Is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in the passage.


EXPLOSION
  Deflation
Split
Reduction
Simplification
Alteration
Test
 
139. ABSURD
  Expensive
Diplomatic
Consistent
Invariable
Reasonable
Test
 
140. COMPREHENSIVE
  Insignificant
Massive
Incomplete
Abundant
Inappropriate
Test
 
141. Directions (Q. 141-150): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence the number of that part will be the answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
  Angered over the delay in giving compensation
factory workers shouted
slogans against the president
when he reaches the office
No error
Test
 
142. .
  The cascading effect of economic slowdown
has brought a much unnerving gloom
to the real estate industry last year
but the industry is looking up this year
No error
Test
 
143. .
  A recycling plant in close proximity to
the residential area can pose
serious threats from residents
by leaving behind persistent pollutants
No error
Test
 
144. .
  The government has the obligation
to provide basic infrastructure facilities
to regulating the process of
urbanization in the country
No error
Test
 
145. .
  Bharatpur is transforming into
India's most fastest growing bird sanctuary
attracting thousands of rare migratory birds
from Europe and Siberia
No error
Test
 
146. .
  Plagued by huge losses
full service airlines are struggling
to cope with the competition
from low cost airlines
No error
Test
 
147. .
  Volunteers of an NGO
interacted with school students
to spread awareness about
environment related issues
No error
Test
 
148. .
  The Union health minister said that
there was an acute shortage of
health personnel in rural areas
who needed to be addressed urgently
No error
Test
 
149. .
  Even though most of India's youth
lives in villages,many people considers
the ones roaming in dazzling multiplexes
as their true reflection
No error
Test
 
150. .
  The RBI has proposed to introduce
polymer notes after taking into considering
the cost and longevity
associated with their manufacturing
No error
Test
 
151. Directions (Q. 151-155): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark 5) as the answer.


A twenty-first century economy cannot be held hostage by power cuts nor travel on nineteenth-century roads.
  cannot be hold
can either be held
can neither be held
can either be hold
No correction required
Test
 
152. The company's philosophy is to make sure that the employees are happy, have the ability to be intellectually stimulated and contributes towards their growth.
  contribute to their growth
contribute towards its growth
contributes towards its growing
contribute to its growing
No correction required
Test
 
153. Even though many'companies are now penetrating rural India, it would help to give India a real chance of witnessing a double-digit GDP growth.
  Despite many companies are
As many company is
Besides many companies are
Since many companies are
No correction required
Test
 
154. Today, governments are introducing more and more technology into their system to address the needs of citizens at a pace fast than that of manual operations.
  faster than that of
faster than those for
fast than that for
more than that in
No correction required
Test
 
155. Making good school education a reality would require major changes in existing school system with expansion at both secondary and elementary levels.

  should requires maj or changes
would requires major change
must require some changes
require major changes
No correction required
Test
 
156. Directions (Q. 156-160): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C). (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow:
(A) In fact, according to mainstream economists, it is inevitable and a necessary evil in any economy. (B) It is thus important for every nation to maintain this reserve of labour force to maintain an optimal level of unemployment.
(C) Unemployment is popularly believed to be an index which measures the economic condition of a nation.
(D) This is because it helps avert inflation by providing a reserve army of labour which keeps wages in check.
(E) The problem, however, only emerges when governments indirectly facilitate unemployment in order to curb inflation through various policies and frameworks, depriving a large population of its fundamental rights.
(F) But contrary to popular belief unemployment is not always disadvantageous to the economy of a state.


Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?
  A
B
C
E
F
Test
 
157. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement?
  A
B
C
D
E
Test
 
158. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?
  A
B
C
E
F
Test
 
159. Which of the following sentences should be the SECOND after rearrangement?
  A
B
D
E
F
Test
 
160. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after rearrangement?
  A
E
D
F
C
Test
 
161. Directions (Q. 161-170): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find but the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
The world is going (161) a deep recession. At such a time, one thing we need in abundance is jobs for the semiskilled and unskilled. This is the only way in which equal(162) of wealth can take, place. The healthcare industry is
(163) poised to occupy this position. The IT industry hires people from the upper-middle strata and rich families, usually engineers, (164) the health care industry hires nurses, to the tune of eighty percent of the jobs created, from the lower economic strata.Global health care is a $ 4.5,-trillion industry, (165) only to the agro industry.. Even then health care (166) only eight percent of world's population. Policymakers should (167) at health care industry as not only an industry which addresses pain but also as one which can (168) the economy. The last century was driven by machines that addressed human toil and it is strongly (169) that this century will be driven by health care. This, however, will only happen if policymakers. make a conscious effort to (170) the right policies in place soon.
  past
against
through
across
on
Test
 
162. .
  earning
share
venture
delivery
distribution
Test
 
163. .
  commonly
ideally
indefinitely
preferably
invariably
Test
 
164. .
  whereas
unlike
besides
although
despite
Test
 
165. .
  encouraging
second
lesser
beating
greater
Test
 
166. .
  affords
cures
visits
reaches
provides
Test
 
167. .
  look
plan
weigh
admire
consider
Test
 
168. .
  persuade
ascertain
influence
impede
estimate
Test
 
169. .
  thought
credited
identified
believed
supposed
Test
 
170. .
  derive
frame
figure
consider
put
Test
 
171. Directions (Q. 171-175): Each question below has two blanks indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Centre should_____ministries whose functions
with the state ministries to save money, deliver efficiency and avoid duplication of work.
  finish, differ
establish, contradict
constitute, matches
abolish, overlap
block, vary
Test
 
172. Many people_______genetically modified food but
the reality is that all the food that we eat has been genetically modified naturally by thousands of years of
  praise, manipulation
grow, mismanagement
criticize, farming
avoid, experience
condemn, abuse
Test
 
173. Given that only seven per cent of the country's labour force is in the organised seetor, training options_____ for the unorganized sectors should also be_____.
  available, enhanced
absent, improved
lacking, sustained
existing, restricted
offered, limited
Test
 
174. Government initiatives and participation of many
industrial houses in_____loans to the villagers have led to the_____of the farmer,
  providing, plight
disbursing, betterment
denying, revitalization
subsidizing, suffering
taking, advancement
Test
 
175. Indians will_____one-Jfourth of total work force in the next five years but India needs to introspect whether its education system is for these demographic dividends.
  become, adequate
consist, incompetent
constitute, unequipped
represent, sound
comprise, prepared
Test
 
176. The rate on which banks borrow from the RBI is called
  SLR
CRR
Interest Rate
Bank Rate
RepoRate
Test
 
177. MK Narayanan has taken over as the Governor of_____.
  Gujarat
Assam
Meghalaya
West Bengal
None of these
Test
 
178. Which of the following will be the venue of the India-ASEAN Summit to be held in 2012?
  Tokyo
Jakarta
Beijing
New Delhi
None of these
Test
 
179. As we know, the RBI is the apex bank of India. Similarly, the apex Bank of the USA is called
  Federal Reserve
The Central Bank of USA
Bank of America
Central National Bank of USA
None of these
Test
 
180. As per the newspaper reports, Standard & Poor's (S&P) has changed India's sovereign rating from 'Negative' to 'Stable'. This means
(A) India's economic condition has improved a lot.
(B) There is no pressure of inflation on the economy as it is well under control.
(C) India's economic condition has further gone down as it has failed to .control the fiscal deficit.
  Only A
OnIy B
Only C
Only A& B
None of these
Test
 
181. As per the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) unveiled by the UPA Govt in August 2009, India will try to capture new markets for its exports in Asia, Latin America, Africa and Oceania etc. Earlier who amongst the following were India's biggest export markets?
(A) USA
(B) Europe
(C)SAARC Nations
  Only A
Only B
Only C
All A, B and C
None of these
Test
 
182. As per the recent reports published in various newspapers, the core infrastructure industries registered a 4.5% growth in the month of February 2010. This figure does not include the performance of which one of the following industries as it is not a core industry?
  Coal
Power
Paper
Cement
All are core industries
Test
 
183. Who amongst the following has taken over as the new Chief of the Armed Forces ?

  Pradeep V Naik
VK Singh
Suresh Mehita
Deepak Kapoor
None of these
Test
 
184. As per the provisions made in the Union Budget 2010-11, Govt will infuse Rs 16,500 crores in banks to make their capital base strong. This money will be infused in which of the following types of banks?
  Gramin Banks
Cooperative Banks
National Housing Bank
Public Sector Banks
None of these
Test
 
185. Who amongstthe following is the recipient of the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2009?

  Herta Mulber
BarackObama
MartliAhtisaari
Paul Krugman
None of these
Test
 
186. As reported in various financial newspapers, the Govt of India is planning to link the prices of diesel and petrol to market prices and may also introduce a graded system of sharing subsidy. If it is done, this will be in order to implement the recommendation of which of the following committees?
  Murli Deora Committee
C Rangarajan Committee
Kirk Parikh Committee
S Sundareshan Committee
None of these
Test
 
187. Which of the following schemes of the Govt of India is planned to help farmers by providing a competitive price to their produce?
(A) Minimum support price of agro products
(B) Creating buffer stock of food grains
(C) Making loans available to them on special and
subsidized rates of interest
  Only A
Only B
Only C
All A, B & C
None of these
Test
 
188. Which of the following norms/practices adopted by the banks is/are launched to ensure that the money from illegal activities/sources does/do not come to banks andtherefore the economic health of the nation does not get affected?
(A) Know Your Customer
(B) Financial Inclusion
(C) Branchless Banking

  Only A
Only B
Only C
Only A&B
All A,B&C
Test
 
189. As a practice, all banks now deduct some amount from their pre-tax income and set aside in a separate account to create a cushion for the loans which may go bad. This is called
  CRR
SLR
Provisioning
PLR
None of these
Test
 
190. As we know, many Indian banks are opening their branches in foreign countries these days. What in your opinion is/are the reasons owing to which these banks are willing to open branches in foreign countries?
(A) India has the largest network of bank branches in the world. Hence other nations also wish to take advantage of their services.
(B) Indian banks get an opportunity to raise foreign-currency funds and also the experience of funding joint ventures of multinationals. This prompts them to open their branches in foreign nations.
(C) As many foreign banks are functioning in India, India in turn is also required to open equal number of branches in foreign countries. Hence Indian banks are opening branches in these countries,
  Only A
Only B
Only C
OnlyA&B
None of these
Test
 
191. Who amongst the following was recently nominated as member of the Rajya Sabha?
  Amitabh Bachchan
Manoj Kumar
Aamir Khan
Javed Akhtar
None of these
Test
 
192. The 97th annual session of the Indian Science Congress was held in which of the following cities in January 2010?
  Mumbai
Kolkata
New Delhi
Thiruvananthapuram
Hyderabad
Test
 
193. Which of the following crops needs plenty of water to grow?
  Jowar
Cotton
Paddy
Bajra
All these need plenty of water
Test
 
194. Which of the following is/are true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
(A) The Act is now known as Indira Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
(B) The Act is now applicable to all the districts of the country.
(C) Minimum wage fixed under this Act is now Rs 250
per day.
  Only A
Only B
Only C
All A,B&C
None of these
Test
 
195. Who amongst the following was recently awarded the prestigious "Order of Merit of the Italian Republic"?
  Sunil Mittal
Ratan Tata
Harshpati Singhania
Rahul Bajaj
None of these
Test
 
196. Govt of India recently approved the national policy on bio-fuels. Which of the following crops is one which is used to make bio-fuels?
  Onion
Sugarcane
Wheat
Coconut
None of these
Test
 
197. Which of the following countries is the largest producer of milk in the world?
  China
India
Denmark
USA
None of these
Test
 
198. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Hockey?
  Bouncer
Bully
Short corner
Goal
Penalty corner
Test
 
199. Saina Nehwal is a famous

  Lawn Tennis player
Golf player
Table Tennis player
Badminton player
None of these
Test
 
200. Who amongst the following is associated with music and is a maestro of international repute?
  Vikram Seth
Steve Waugh
Salman Rushdie
RituBeri
AR Rahman
Test
 
201. India is providing help to which of the following nations in setting up a Medical College there on the lines of the AIMS?
  Nepal
Bhutan
Bangladesh
Myanmar
None of these
Test
 
202. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the company which produces chemical fertilizers in India?
  IASRI
BHEL
IFFCO
FICCI
FERA
Test
 
203. Which of the following is NOT a food grain?
  Paddy
Jatropha
Bajra
Jowar
Wheat
Test
 
204. As we know Govt is paying much attention towards the development of watersheds and water bodies in all the areas of the country. What is/are the reasons owing to which Govt has to make these special efforts to develop/ recharge watersheds and water bodies ?
(A) The single biggest problem of agriculture in the country is inappropriate irrigation facilities and farmers' overdependence on the monsoon. Govt wants farmers to come out of it.
(B) The water table in some of the areas in the country is going down. This is a matter of great concern for all of usas this may result in severe water problem in days to come. Govt is serious about it.
(C) Around 30 to 35 percent watersheds/water bodies in the country are not being utilized as the quality of the water in these has deteriorated over the years.
  Only A
Only B
Only C
A11 A,B&C
None of these
Test
 
205. Which of the following is/are true about the Indira Awas Yojana ?
(A) The scheme provides financial assistance to people living below poverty line for construction of housing units.
(B) Every family gets an assistance of Rs 3 lakhs for construction of new housing units and up to Rs 2 lakhs for upgradation of old/existing units.
(C) The scheme is available only to those who are staying in any village or urban area having a population of 50,000 or more.
  Only A
Only B
Only C
All A, B & C
None of these
Test
 
206. The head office of the World Trade Organisation is located in_____.
  Nepal
India
Japan
Australia
None of these
Test
 
207. Who amongst the following is/was NOT a famous writer of English language?
  VSNaipaul
AnitaDesai
Harivansh Rai Bachchan
Kiran Desai
Chetan Bhagat
Test
 
208. Which of the following awards is givenfor excellence in the field of Sports?
  Kalidas Samman
Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
Jnanpith Award
Arj una Award
BharatRatna
Test
 
209. Which of the following trophies/cups is associated with the game Of Cricket?
  Davis Cup
Agha Khan Cup
Nehru Trophy
Durand Cup
Duleep Trophy
Test
 
210. Who amongst the following is NOT a recipient of the Padma Vibhushan award given away recently?
  YVReddy
ZoraSehgal
V Ramakrishnan
Pratap C Reddy
Shreya Ghosal
Test
 
211. The conference of the speakers and presiding officers of the commonwealth countries was organized recently in
  New Delhi
London
Pretoria
Kuala Lumpur
None of these
Test
 
212. Which of the following films was adjudged as the 'Best Feature Film' in the 56th National Film Awards announced recently?
  Antaheen
Fashion
Jogva
Bioscope
None of these
Test
 
213. Who amongst the following Indian players won the Mixed Doubles of the Australian Open Tennis 2010?
  Mahesh Bhupathi
Leander Paes
Sania Mirza
Rohan Bopanna
None of these
Test
 
214. As per the "Education for All Global Monitoring Report", released by the UNO, over half of the total illiterate population of the world lives in just four countries. Which of the following is NOT one of these four?
  China
India
South Africa
Pakistan
Bangladesh
Test
 
215. Which of the following is/are correct about the Rajiv Gandhi Gramin LPG Vitrak Yojana?
(A) Women/men in the age group of 21 -45 years will be stakeholders.
(B) All stakeholders will earn Rs 15,000 to Rs 20,000 per month as their income.
(C) LPG will be supplied through a pipeline from the nearest depot to the filling station which will be common for a constellation of 4 to 5 villages.
  Only A
Only B
Only A & B
Only A&C
A11 A,B&C
Test
 
216. An individual going to Bangladesh will be required to make all his/her payments in which of the following currencies?
  Rial
Dinar
Taka
Rupee
Dollar
Test
 
217. Naj ib Tun Razak, who was on a visit to India a few months back, is the
  President of Iran
Prime Minister of Iran
President of Malaysia
Prime Minister of Malaysia
None of these
Test
 
218. The construction of a dam on which of the following rivers in Arunachal Pradesh has become a matter of concern as some people feel that it will damage the socio cultural environment of the State?
  Brahmaputra
Teesta
Gandak
Padma
None of these
Test
 
219. India recently provided a US$ 1-billion credit to which of the following countries in its neighbourhood so that bilateral trade with it can be improved?
  China
Pakistan
Bangladesh
Myanmar
None of these
Test
 
220. Which of the following regulatory bodies is celebrating its Platinum Jubilee year this fiscal?
  NABARD
SEBI
IRDA
AMFI
RBI
Test
 
221. As we all know the Govt of India had launched "Look East Policy" a few years ago so that it could have better relations and trade with South East Asian countries. Which of the following nations is considered or called the "Door of South East Nations"?
  Bangladesh
Myanmar
China
Afghanistan
None of these
Test
 
222. Which of the following countries is going to host SAARC summit next year?
  Bangladesh
India
Pakistan
Nepal
Bhutan
Test
 
223. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the Union Minister of Corporate Affairs is planning to introduce a system where two firms may audit accounts of every company. Which of the following may be the impact of this dual audit system, when implemented?
(A) This will bring transparent, independent and objective assessment of the functioning of the companies.
(B) This will create a warning or alarming system so that Satyam-like episodes can be averted.
(C) This will give an opportunity to auditors to learn . more about the "inside activities" of the companies and also a better understanding of the business tactics the companies adopt to beat their competitors.
  Only A
Only B
Only C
All A, B & C
None of these
Test
 
224. Some financial experts and business leaders feel that the present policies of the RBI may result in hardening of the interest rates further. Besides this, hardening of the rupee in international markets is also possible. If it happens, what will be its impact on the market?
(A) More and more Indian firms would like to borrow from global markets instead of domestic ones.
(B) Companies may have to suspend their plans of raising capital needed for extension of business for sometime.
(C) More and more Indian companies would like to open their offices/branches in foreign nations so that they can approach foreign investors easily.
  Only A
Only B
Only A&B
Only B&C
None of these
Test
 
225. Which of the following is/are true about the "Gram Nyayalayas"?
(A) These courts will be mobile courts and will function at Panchayat level.
(B) The Magistrates of these courts will go to the villages in their area of coverage and will dispose off cases of the villages there itself.
(C) Only civil suits related to the property of Rs 5,00,000 and above will be disposed off in this way.
  Only A
Only B
Only C
Only A&B
A11 A,B&C
Test
 
226. OCR stands for_____
  Optical Character Recognition
Optical CPU Recognition
Optimal Character Rendering
Other Character Restoration
None of these
Test
 
227. If a new device is attached to a computer, such a& a printer or scanner, its______must be installed before the device can be used.
  buffer
driver
pager
server
None of these
Test
 
228. The software that allows users to surf the internet is called a/an

  Search engine
Internet Service Provider (ISP)
Multimedia application
Browser
None of these
Test
 
229. A tuple is a
  column of a table
two-dimensional table
row of a table
key of a table
None of these
Test
 
230. The method of file organization in which data records in a file are arranged in a specified order according to a key field is known as the
  Direct access method
Queuing method
Predetermined method
Sequential access method
None of these
Test
 
231. In Excel,_____contains one or more worksheets.

  Template
Workbook
Active cell
Label
None of these
Test
 
232. Which of the following is a popular programming language for developing-multimedia web pages, websites, and web-based applications?
  COBOL
Java
BASIC
Assembler
None of these
Test
 
233. Compiling creates a(n)_____.
  program specification
algorithm
executable program
subroutine
None of these
Test
 
234. A CD-RW disk
  has a faster access than an internal disk
is a form of optical disk, so it can only be written once
holds less data than a floppy disk
can be erased and rewritten
None of these
Test
 
235. The first page of a Web site is called the
  Home page
Index
Java Script
Book mark
None of these
Test
 
236. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document.
  anchor
URL
hyperlink
reference
None of these
Test
 
237. The_____ manual tells you how to use a software
program.
  documentation
programming
technical
user
None of these
Test
 
238. What disk is used to cold-boot a PC?
  Setup disk
System disk
Diagnostic disk
Program disk
None of these
Test
 
239. The ____ tells the computer how to use its
components.
  utility
network
operating system
application program
None of these
Test
 
240. A_____contains buttons and menus that provide quick access to commonly used commands.
  menu bar
toolbar
window
action bar
None of these
Test
 
241. Numbers in table columns are usually
  right-aligned
left-aligned
justified
centered
None of these
Test
 
242. The_______of software contains lists of commands
and options.
  menu bar
title bar
formula bar
toolbar
None of these
Test
 
243. To access a mainframe or supercomputer, users often use a_______
  terminal
node
desktop
handheld
None of these
Test
 
244. By default, your documents print in_____mode.
  Landscape
Portrait
Page Setup
Print View
None of these
Test
 
245. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful?
  ROM information can be easily updated.
ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.
Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power.
ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers.
None of these
Test
 
246. What are bas, doc, and htm examples of?
  extensions
domains
protocols
databases
None of these
Test
 
247. Ctrl, shift and alt are called______keys.
  adjustment
function
modifier
alphanumeric
None of these
Test
 
248. Which type of file is created by word processing programs?
  database file
storage file
document file
worksheet file
graphical file
Test
 
249. Personal computers can be connected together to form a ___.
  server
super computer
network
enterprise
None of these
Test
 
250. A modem
  translates analog signals from a computer into digital signals that can travel along conventional telephone lines.
translates digital signals from a computer into analyse signals that, can travel along conventional telephone lines.
demodulates digital signals from a computer.
modulates signals from an analog telephone line.
None of these
Test
 
251. Which of the following menu types is also called a dropdown menu?
  fly-but
cascading
pop-up
pull-down
None of these
Test
 
252. Data (information) is stored in computer as
  files
directories
floppies
matter
None of these
Test
 
253. The central processing unit contains .which of the following as a component?
  Memory, Regulation Unit
Flow Control Unit
Arithmetic Logic Unit
Instruction Manipulation Unit
None of these
Test
 
254. Memory unit is one part of
  Control unit
Central Processing Unit
Input device
Output device
None of these
Test
 
255. The process of writing out computer instructions, is known as
  assembling
compiling
executing
coding
None of these
Test
 
256. A Web site address is a unique name that identifies a specific_____on the Web.
  Web browser
PDA
Web Site
link
None of these
Test
 
257. A character of information is represented by a(n) |____.
  byte
bit
field
attribute
None off these
Test
 
258. An example of a telecommunications device is a
  keyboard
mouse
printer
modem
None of these
Test
 
259. __is a procedure that requires users to enter an identification code and a matching password.
  Paging
Logging on
Time-sharing
Multitasking
None of these
Test
 
260. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment?
  Keyboard
Mouse
Joystick
Track ball
None of these
Test
 
261. The simultaneous execution of two or more instructions is called
  sequential access
reduced instruction set computing
multiprocessing
disk mirroring
None of these
Test
 
262. Multiprogramming systems:
  are easier to develop than single programming systems
execute each job faster
execute more jobs in the same time period
use only one large mainframe computer.
None of these
Test
 
263. Which device can understand the difference between data and programs?
  Input device
Output device
Memory
Microprocessor
None of these
Test
 
264. Which of the following devices has a limitation that we can only read it but cannot erase or modify it?
  Tape Drive
Hard Disk
Compact Disk
Floppy Disk
None of these
Test
 
265. Which of the following is not an output device?
  Plotter
Printer
Monitor
Touch Screen
None of these
Test
 
266. Data that is copied from an application is stored in the
  driver
clipboard
terminal
prompt
None of these
Test
 
267. Every component of your computer is either _
  software or CPU/RAM
input devices or output devices
application software or system software
hardware or software
None of these
Test
 
268. A collection of interrelated records is called a
  management information system
spreadsheet
database
text file
None of these
Test
 
269. Which of the following is the storage area within the computer itself which holds data only temporarily as the computer processes instructions?
  the hard disk
main memory
the control unit
read-only memory
None of these
Test
 
270. Codes consisting of bars or lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as_____.
  a bar code
an ASCII code
a magnetic tape
a light pen
None of these
Test
 
271. A____contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
  programming language
programming structure
syntax
logic chart
None of these
Test
 
272. _____ is a set of keywords, symbols, and a system of rules for constructing statements by which humans can communicate the instructions to be executed by a computer.
  A computer program
A programming language
An assembler
Syntax
None of these
Test
 
273. The general term "peripheral equipment" is used for
  any device that is attached to a computer system
large-scale computer systems
a program collection
other office equipment not associated with a desktop Computer
None of these
Test
 
274. If a memory chip is volatile, it will____.
  explode if exposed to high temperatures
lose its contents if current is turned off
be used for data storage only
be used to both read and write data
None of these
Test
 
275. ____is the process of finding errors in software code.
  Compiling
Assembling
Interpreting
Debugging
None of these
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